Monday, March 8, 2010

Important Years

Important Years
Year                            Work

1766 — Establishment of first Indian Postal system by Lord Clive in India.
1774 — Establishment of first G.P.O. in Kolkata by Warren Hastings.
1786 — Establishment of Madras G.P.O.
1793 — Establishment of G.P.O. at Mumbai
1854 — On October 1, 1854, Indian Post Office was recognised as of        national importance and was     brought under the authority of Director-General. Year 2004 was celebrated as a 150th year of the Indian Post Office. The establishment of the deptt. of Post Office is to be considered from this very year.
1863 — Railway Mail Service (R.M.S.) was started.
1873 — Sale of engraving envelopes was started
1876 — India started Parcel Postal Unit.
1877 — Started of V.P.P.
1879 — Post Card was started.
1880 — Money-order Service was started.
1911 — First airmail was sent from Allahabad to Naini.
1935 — Indian Postal Order was started.
1972 — Pincode was started.
1984 — Postal life insurance was started.
1985 — Post and telephone departments were separated.
1986 — Speed Post Service was started.
1990 — At Mumbai and Chennai, two automatic postal edition Centres were started.
1995 — Rural Postal Insurance was started.
1996 — Media Postal Service was started.
1997 — Business Postal Service was started.
1998 — Satellite Postal Service was started.
1999 — Data Dak and Express Dak Services were started.
2000 — Greeting Post Service was started.
2001 — Electronic fund transfer service was started.
3rd Jan. 2002 — Track and Tax Service based on internet was started.
5th Sep. 2003 — Bill mail Service was started.
30th Jan. 2004 — Beginning of E Postal Service.
10th Aug. 2004 — Logestice Post Service was started.

GENERAL ENGLISH-National Defense Academy Examination 2008

GENERAL ENGLISH
National Defense Academy Examination 2008(Held on 20 April, 2008)

Directions—(Q. 1–8) Each of the following Eight items consists of a word or a group of words bold-capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite IN MEANING to the word or the group of words in bold-capital letters.

1. SINGULAR
(A) Nearby
(B) Ordinary
(C) Wide
(D) Modern

2. RECLUSE
(A) Criminal
(B) Wise
(C) Gregarious
(D) Timid

3. BE NO SLOUCH
(A) Inefficient
(B) Honest
(C) Saintly
(D) Well-known

4. OPPROBRIUM
(A) Very easy
(B) Suspenseful
(C) Modern
(D) Praise

5. SOLICITOUS
(A) Mild
(B) Showing no concern for
(C) Grateful
(D) Cheerful

6. UNDER DURESS
(A) Dry
(B) Volition
(C) Affluence
(D) Lack of commitment



7. LACONIC
(A) Sullen
(B) Handsome
(C) Verbose
(D) Sharp memory

8. SLOTHFUL
(A) Credulous
(B) Highly skilled
(C) Without resources
(D) Sprightly

(SYNONYMS)

Directions—(Q. 9–16) Each of the following Eightitems consists of a word in Bold-capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in Boldcapital letters.

9. EXACTION
(A) Accuracy
(B) Left-over portion
(C) Act of demanding strictly
(D) Ignorance

10. STRAFE
(A) To punish
(B) To strengthen
(C) To run away
(D) To work very hard

11. CONTEMPORANEOUS
(A) Irritating
(B) Artificial
(C) A very complicated problem
(D) Happening at the same time

12. HIATUS
(A) Uphill task
(B) Distant place
(C) Fading memory
(D) Gap

13. EXACERBATE
(A) To make something more severe
(B) To cause artificial shortage
(C) To assume false importance
(D) To flatter

14. MODICUM
(A) Basic
(B) Pertaining to earlier times
(C) Small quantity
(D) Annoying weather

15. FACTITIOUS
(A) Humorous
(B) Truthful
(C) Artificial
(D) Causing fatigue

16. DELECTATION
(A) Enjoyment
(B) Envy
(C) Inspiration
(D) Astuteness

(COMPREHENSION)

Directions—(Q. 17–25) In this Section, you have Three short passage. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a Passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Examples ‘I’ and ‘J’ are solved for you.

PASSAGE (EXAMPLE)

In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise, a basic fact that confronts us squarely and unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and happiness. Different forms of life at different levels of existence make up the teeming denizens of this earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong to the higher groups such as human beings or to the lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a mute creature as it is to a man. Even the lowliest insect strives for protection against dangers that threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live and not to die, so do all other creatures.

I. The author’s main point is that—
(A) different forms of life are found on earth
(B) different levels of existence are possible in nature
(C) peace and security are the chief goals of all living beings
(D) even the weakest creature struggles to preserve its life

J. Which one of the following assumptions or steps is essential in developing the author’s position ?
(A) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(B) The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace
(C) All beings are divided into higher and lower groups
(D) A parallel is drawn between happiness and life, and pain and death

Explanation :
I. The idea which represents the author’s main point is “peace and security are the
chief goals of all living beings”, which is answer.
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is “The will to survive of a creature is identified with a desire for peace”, which is response (B). So (B) is the correct answer.

PASSAGE – I
For more than 3 decades, I achieved great success as a lawyer, till a stroke left my right side totally paralysed. Despite the doctor’s encouragement, I was consumed by rage and self-pity. I yearned to be active again. But what could a middle-age cripple like me do ? One day, glancing at some paintings I owned, I thought suddenly, “what about painting” ? In fact, I had always wanted to paint, but had never had the time. Now, I had plenty of time. In the last 25 years, I have completed 300 paintings—one of them appeared on the cover of the Reader’s Digest. The stroke, I realize, has helped me develop a latent talent and enjoy life.

17. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
While in the hospital, the author was—
(A) angry with himself for falling ill.
(B) relieved at the successful treatment.
(C) frustrated at his helpless situation.
(D) resentful at being hospitalized.

18. Why did the author consider himself a cripple?
(A) He could not go back to work.
(B) He could no longer use his right hand.
(C) He could not use his time properly.
(D) He could not lead an active life.

19. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The paralytic stroke helped the author—
(A) to face challenges in life successfully.
(B) to realize his latent talent.
(C) to learn a new hobby.
(D) to earn more money.

PASSAGE – II
“Westward Ho !” we shouted as the sail of our crudely constructed raft, the Kon-Tiki caught the wind. The sail quickly filled and the Kon-Tiki began to move. The six of us were off to our great adventure.
As night fell, the troughs of the sea grew gradually deeper and our first duel with the
elements began. Each time we heard the sudden deafening hiss of a roller closeby and saw a white crest come towards us out of the darkness, we held on tight and waited for the worst. But invariably the Kon-Tiki calmly swung up her stern and rose skyward unperturbed.

20. What does the word ‘duel’ in the passage mean ?
(A) A battle
(B) A fortification
(C) A two-side contest
(D) Divided in two

21. Which one of the following is correct ?
When big waves struck the raft the six people in it.
(A) Started crying.
(B) Showed courage and patience.
(C) Acted in a rash manner.
(D) Showed passiveness.

22. How was the Kon-Tiki’s performance on the high seas ?
(A) Very shaky
(B) Extremely poor
(C) Stable and resolute
(D) Unpredictable

PASSAGE – III
It was Sunday. As usual, there was a great rush of merry makers who had come to the river to swim or to bathe. Those who knew how to swim were jumping into the water from the high bridge or the banks of the deep river. Mohan did not know how to swim so he was merely watching others who were enjoying the fun of swimming. However on the insistence of his friend Swarn, he sat on his shoulders and both jumped into the water. Unable to carry Mohan along, Swarn left him in the flowing water. Mohan shouted for help. There were so many swimmers but nobody came to his rescue since they were indifferent to the plight of a stranger. I had just reached there, so I was in my full dress. Without undressing I jumped into the river and swam up to the drowning boy. Holding his left arm, I brought him out of water in a way that he might not hinder me from swimming safely. The boy was saved which won me great applause from the people. I had jumped into the water without any fear or hesitation as I knew the art of saving drowning persons. I had already saved a few lives from drowning.

23. Why did Swarn jump into the water carrying mohan on his shoulders ?
(A) Mohan had insisted to swim.
(B) He wanted to enjoy the fun of seeing a drowning man.
(C) He simply wanted to drown him in the river.
(D) Swarn felt that his friend should also enjoy the fun of swimming in the river.

24. Why did Swarn leave his friend Mohan in the waters ?
(A) Mohan wanted to learn how to swim.
(B) He wanted Mohan to learn how to swim.
(C) Because he was sure that Mohan would be able to swim across the river.
(D) Because he found it difficult to swim in the river with his friend on his shoulders.

25. Although there were many swimmers, why did nobody come forward to save the
drowning boy ?
(A) They wanted some financial reward.
(B) They did not know the art of saving a drowning person.
(C) They were not experts in the art of swimming.
(D) The river was very deep and they did not want to take a risk for a stranger.


Answers with Explanation

1. (B) ‘Singular’ means ‘extraordinary’.
2. (A) ‘Recluse’ means ‘hermit’
3. (A) ‘Be no slouch’ means ‘efficient’.
4. (D) ‘Opprobrium’ means ‘blamed.
5. (B) ‘Solicitous’ means ‘concerned’.
6. (B) ‘Under Duress’ means ‘under compulsion’.
7. (C) ‘Laconic’ means ‘terse’.
8. (D) ‘slothful’ means ‘lazy’.
9. (C)         10. (A)     11. (D)     12. (D)     13. (A)
14. (C)     15. (C)     16. (A)     17. (A)     18. (B)
19. (B)      20. (A)     21. (B)     22. (C)     23. (D)
24. (D)      25. (D)

Facts About India

Facts About India

1. India is the seventh largest country in the world in terms of area.

2. Indian mainland extends between latitudes 8 degree 4' and 37 degree 6' north, longitudes 68 degree 7' and 97 degree 25' east and measures about 3,214 km from north to south between the extreme latitudes and about 2,933 km from east to west between the extreme longitudes.

3. India has land frontier of about 15,200 km. The total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km.

4. Countries having common border with India are: Afghanistan, Pakistan, China, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar and Bangladesh. Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar.

5. Aravalli, Vindhya, Satpura, Maikala and Ajanta are prominent hill ranges that lie between the Peninsular India and the plains of Ganga.

6. The Eastern and Western Ghats meet at the southern part of the Indian Peninsula which is formed by the Nilgiri Hills. .

7. Ghagra, Gomti, Gandak, Kosi and Yamuna are the major Himalayan rivers that join the Ganga. Chambal, Betwa and Sone are major rivers flowing north from central India that join Yamuna/Ganga.

8. After Ganga, Godavari has the second largest basin covering 10 per cent of the area of India. Next to it is Krishna, followed by the Mahanadi basin.

9. The climate of India can be described as Tropical monsoon type.

10. India is in tenth position in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity.

11. Botanical Survey of India, (BSI), Kolkata is the nodal agency that is studying the flora of the country. BSI brings out an inventory of the endangered plants in the form of a publication titled "Red Data Book".

12. The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Kolkata and its 16 regional stations are responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India.

13. India has a great variety of fauna, numbering 89,451 species.

14. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on July 22,1947.

15. The State emblem of India is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capitol of Ashoka. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capitol is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dizaram Chakra). There are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion, separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus.

16. In the State emblem, adopted on January 26,1950, only three lions are visible. The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted. The words, Satyameva Jayate, from Mundaka Upanishad, meaning 'truth alone triumphs', are inscribed below the abacus in Devanagiri script.

17. The song Jana-gana-mana, composed by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly, as the National Anthem of India, on January 24, 1950. It was first sung on December 27, 1911, at the Calcutta session of Indian National Congress. The complete song consists of five stanzas. The first stanza contains the full version of the National Anthem.

18. The national calendar of India is based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month. A normal year of 365 days was adopted from March 22, 1957, along with the Gregorian Calendar for the following purposes: (1) Gazette of India; (2) news broadcast by All India Radio; (3) calendars issued by Government of India; and (4) Government communications addressed to the members of the public.

19. Agriculture sector of India contributes 25 per cent of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and about 70 per cent of the population is dependent on it.

20. There are three main crop seasons in India, namely, kharif, rabi and summer.'

21. Major kharif crops are: rice, jowar, bajra, maize, cotton, sugarcane, soyabean, and groundnut.

22. Major rabi crops are: wheat, barley, gram, linseed, rapeseed, and mustard. Rice, maize and groundnut are grown in summer season also.

23. In Indian agriculture, oilseeds are next to food grains in area coverage, production and value. India is,one of the largest oilseeds growing countries, contributing about 15 per cent to the acreage under oilseeds in the world.

24. The Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India, set up a Technology Mission on Oilseeds in May 1986 with the objective to increase the production of oilseeds, reduce the import of edible oils and to achieve self-sufficiency in edible oils.

25. India is the third largest producer and consumer of fertilizers in the world, after China and USA. It contributes to 9.5 per cent of world production and 10.6 per cent of world consumption of NPK nutrients, but sustains one-sixth of the world population.

26. The National Biofertiliser Development Centre is located at Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh. Its six regional centres are located at .labalpur, Nagpur, Bangalore, Bhubaneshwar, Hissar and Imphal.

27. The Central Fertiliser Quality Control and Training Institute is located in Faridabad, Haryana. Its three regional centres are located at Mumbai, Chennai and Kalyani.

28. India accounts for about 10 per cent of the production of fruits in the world.

29. Mango is the most important fruit produced in India, covering about 39 per cent of the total area used for fruit production and accounting for 23 per cent of total fruit production of India.

30. India occupies first position in the total production of banana in the world.

31. India is next only to China in the area and production of vegetables. India contributes about 13 per cent of the world vegetable production and occupies first position in production of cauliflowers, second in onion and third in cabbage in the world.

32. India is the largest producer, processor, consumer and exporter of cashew nut in the world. India produces 45 per cent of the global production of cashew.

33. The Centrally-sponsored scheme of soil conservation in the catchments of River Valley Project (RVP) was started in the third Five-year Plan. Another scheme of FloodProne Rivers (FPR) was started in the sixth Plan. Both the schemes were clubbed during the ninth Plan and further subsumed under Macro Management Mode in November 2000.

34. The Locust Warning Organisation (LWO) is located in Jodhpur.

35. Seed sector in India consists of two national level corporations: National Seed Corporation (NSC) and State Farm Corporation of India (SFCI). The Seeds Act, 1966 provides for the legislative framework for regulation of quality of seeds sold in India.

36. The Department of Agriculture and Cooperation (DAC) launched a Central Sector Scheme during the ninth Plan to make available seeds for any contingent situation arising out of natural calamity.

37. Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI) advises the Central and State governments on agricultural marketing policies and programmes. It is located in Faridabad, Haryana.

38. The National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is located in Jaipur.

39. Farm Machinery Training and Testing Institutes are located at Budni (Madhya Pradesh), Hissar (Haryana), Garladinne (Andhra Pradesh) and Biswanath Chariali (Assam).

40. India accounts for 57 per cent of the world's buffalo population and 15 per cent of the cattle population. India possesses 27 acknowledged indigenous breeds of cattle and 7 breeds of buffaloes.

41. The present availability of animal protein in an Indian diet is 10 gm per person per day, as against a world average of 25 gm.

42. India is the largest producer of milk in the world and ranks fifth in egg production.

43. Central Sheep Breeding Farm is located in Hissar.

44. Reishi or Ling Zhi is a medicinal mushroom which has been successfully grown in India.

45. For rehabilitation of calcareous soils Tamarix articulate, Acadia nilotica, Prosopis Juliflora, Eucalyptus tereticornis, Acacia tortills, Cassia siamea and Feronia limonia have been found promising for plantation with furrow planting methods in arid and semi-arid regions. Salvadora persica proved the ideal species for soil and water management in saline black soils.

46. Karzat 4, Indryani, Panvel 2, Palgarh 1 and 2 are names of various rice varieties sown in India.

47. Kankrej, Ponwar, Gangatiri and Kherigah are names of various cattle breeds in India.

48. Jalauni, Kheri, Mandya, Hassan and Mecheri are names of various sheep breeds of India.

49. C-ELISA is an indigenously developed kit for rinderpest which has been validated by the International Atomic Energy Agency, Vienna.

50. Feedbase-2001 is a data base that provides information on feed resources and feed balance sheet.

51. Okara is a by-product of soymilk.

52. Vivekananda Parvatiya Krishi Anusandhan Sansthan is located in Almora, Uttaranchal.

53. The Lalit Kala Academy (National Academy of Fine Arts) is located in New Delhi. It has regional centres, called Rashtriya Lalit Kala Kendras, located at Lucknow, Kolkata, Chennai, Garhi(New Delhi) and Bhubaneswar.

54. Bharata Natyam is a dance form of Tamil Nadu. Kathakali is a dance form of Kerala. Kathak is a classical dance form revitalised as a result of Mughal influence on Indian culture. Manipuri is a dance form of Manipur, while Kuchipudi owes its origin to Andhra Pradesh. Odissi, once practised as temple dance, has its origins in Orissa.

55. Kathak Kendra, Delhi, and Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance Academy, Imphal, are training institutes run by Sangeet Natak Academy, the National Academy of. Music, Dance and Drama. The Academy also supports training programmes in Chhau dance of Mayurbhanj and Seraikella, as also Koodiyattam of Kerala.

56. The National School of Drama (NSD) is one of the foremost theatre institutions in the world and the only one of its kind in India. It was set up by Sangeet Natak Academy in 1959 and in 1975 it became an autonomous organization.

57. The Theatre-in education Company (renamed as Sanskar Rang Toli was founded by NSD in 1989. Since 1998, NSD has organized National Theatre Festival for Children, christened Jashne Bachpan, every year.

58. The first-ever National Theatre Festival, christened Bharat Rang Mahotsav, was held in March-April, 1999 to commemorate the 50th year of India's Independence.

59. Sahitya Academy has its Head Office in New Delhi. Besides, it has four offices in Kolkata, Mumbai, Bangalore and Chennai. It also has four translation centres at Bangalore, Delhi, Ahmedabad and Kolkata, besides a project office at Vadodra for promotion of oral and tribal literature and an Archives of Indian literature. It also maintains a multilingual library at New Delhi, Bangalore and Kolkata, stocking books in over 25 languages.

60. The highest honour conferred by Sahitya Academy on a writer is by electing him/her its Fellow. The honour is limited to 21 at any given moment.

61. The Sahitya Academy holds a 'Festival of Letters' every year, usually in February.

62. The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) functions as an attached office of the Department of Culture, Ministry of Tourism and Culture.

63. The National Museum was established on August 15, 1949 in the Durbar Hall of the Rashtrapati Bhawan.It was formally inaugurated on December 18, 1960 on its present premises.

64. The National Council of Science Museums is located in Kolkata.

65. The Allahabad Museum is famous for its collection of Bharhut, Bhumara and Jamsot sculptors and for the terracotta from Kausumbi, Bhita, Jhusi, Patliputra, Sarnath, Rajghat and Ahichhatra. The Museum also has paraphernalia and family heirlooms of Nehrus, including manuscripts of' An Autobiography' by J.L. Nehru.

66. The National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located in Lucknow.

67. The National Gallery of Modern Art (NGMA) was founded in 1954 to promote and develop contemporary Indian Art.

68. The National Archives of India (NAI), New Delhi, known until independence as Imperial Record Department, was originally established in Kolkata in March 1891. It is the official custodian of all non-current records of permanent / value to the government of India and its predecessor bodies. It has a regional office at Bhopal and three record centres at Bhubaneswar, ]aipur and Pondicherry.

69. Marine Archeology Centre has been established in the National Institute of Oceanography, Goa. Major exploration are being undertaken in the waters of ancient Dwarka, Poompuhar waters (Tamil Nadu) and around Lakshadweep.

70. National Library, Kolkata serves as a permanent repository of all reading and information material produced in India, as well.as printed material written by Indians and concerning India written by foreigners, wherever published and in whatever language.

71. Under the Delivery of Books and Newspapers (Public Libraries) Act, 1954, four libraries-National Library, Kolkata, Central Library, Mumbai, Connemara Public Library, Chennai, and Delhi Public Library, Delhi-are entitled to receive a copy of new books and magazines published in the counuy.

72. Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library, Patna has a rich collection of over 20,000 'Arabic, Persian, Urdu, Turkish, Pali and Sanskrit manuscripts.

73. The Thanjavur Maharaja Serfoji's Saraswati Mahal (TMSSM) Library, Thanjavur is one of the few medieval libraries that exist in the world.

74. The Rampur Raza Library, housed in Hamid Manzil in the fort of Rampur, is a treasure house of Indo Islamic learning and art.

75. Asiatic Society in Kolkata was founded by Sir William Jones in 1784, with the objective of inquiring into the history, science, arts and literature of Asia.

76. The Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies is located in Varanasi. It was established with the objective of preservation of Tibetan culture and tradition, restoration of ancient Indian literature preserved in Tibetan language and to provide higher education in Buddhist studies.

77. The Central Institute of Buddhist Studies is located, in Leh.

78. The Sikkim Research Institute of Tibetology is located in Sikkim. It has done significant work in promoting research in CHHO (Tibetan for Dharma).

79. Anthropological Survey of India is located in Kolkata.

80. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Manav Sanghrahalaya (National Museum of Mankind) is located in Bhopal. It is dedicated to the depiction of an integrated story of humankind in global perspective, with special focus on India.

81. The Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) has its headquarters in New Delhi and two regional Centres at Udaipur and Hyderabad.

82. With the aim of projecting in India cultural kinships transcending territorial boundaries, seven zonal cultural centres have been established at Patiala, Kolkata, Thanjavur, Udaipur, Allahabad, Dimapur and Nagpur.

83. Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) is a premier national institute engaged in the pursuit of knowledge on arts and culture. It is also the nodal agency for the setting up of a national data bank on arts, humanities and cultural heritage.

84. Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti has been set up primarily to maintain and look after the national memorial where Gandhiji was assassinated, now called Gandhi Smriti, and a permanent photo exhibition at Rajghat, called Gandhi Darshan.

85. The Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) is responsible for formulation and maintenance of statistical standards, work pertaining to national accounts, industrial statistics, consumer price indices, conduct of economic census and surveys and liaising with international agencies in statistical matters. It is located in New Delhi.

86. National income is defined as the sum of incomes accruing to factors of production, supplied by normal residents of the country before deduction of direct taxes. It is equal to net national product at factor-cost.

87. The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) has been set up to conduct large scale surveys to meet the data needs of India as also for the estimation of national income and other aggregates. It has four divisions: (i) Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD), with headquarters in Kolkata; (ii) Field Operations Division (FOD) having its headquarters in Delhi; (iii) Data Processing Division (DPD) with headquarters in Kolkata; and (iv) Coordination and Publication Division (CPD), located in Delhi.

88. Summary results of NSSO surveys are published in the biannual technical journal Sarvekshana.

89. India has an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of 2.02 million sq km. The EEZ provides India with more than 60 per cent of its oil and gas production and fishing valued at $ 1.15 billion.

90. The Army War College, earlier known as College of Combat, is located in Mhow.

91. The Infantry School, Mhow is the largest and oldest military training centre of Indian Army. This institute also trains the National Shooting team, under the aegis of Army Marksmanship Unit (AMU).

92. The Institute of Defence Management is located in Secunderabad.

93. The Defence Services Staff College is located in Wellington. It imparts training to middle level officers (Major and equivalent) of Army, Air Force and Navy.

94. The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is located in Gulmarg.

95. The National Defence College is located in Delhi. It is the only institute of India that imparts knowledge on all aspects of national security and strategy.

96. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited, located in Hyderabad, was incorporated with the primary objective of ushering in self-reliance in special metals and alloys for strategic sectors like Defence, Space and Atomic energy.

97. The 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002, makes elementary education a Fundamental Right for children in the age-group of 6-14 years.

98. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) scheme evolved I from the recommendations of the State Education Ministers' Conference held in October 1998. The main goals of SSA are: (a) All 6-14 age children complete five-year primary education by 2007; (b) Bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by 2007 and at elementary education level by 2010; (c) Focus on elementary education of satisfactory quality with emphasis on education for life; and (d) Universal retention by 2010.

99. The National programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education is commonly known as Mid Day Meal Scheme. It was launched in August 1995.

100. Operation Blackboard was launched in 1987 with the aim of improving human and physical resources available in primary schools of India.

101. Janshala Programme is a collaborative effort of the government of India, and five UN agencies-UNDP, UNESCO, ILO, UNICEF and UNFPA-to provide programme support to the ongoing efforts towards achieving Universal Elementary Education (UEE).

102. The National Council for Teacher Education was established by an Act of the Parliament in August 1995.

103. The University Grants Commission (UGC) serves as a coordinating body between the Union and State governments and the institutions of higher learning.

104. The National Literacy Mission (NLM) aims to attain a sustainable threshold level of 75 per cent literacy by 2007, by imparting functional literacy to non-literates in the age-group of 15-35 years.

105. The Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages is located in Hyderabad.

106. The International Standard Book Number (ISBN) system was introduced in India in 1985 by the Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency for ISBN. ISBN is a unique international publisher's identifier number.

107. Administering the Copyright Act, 1957 is the responsibility of the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of Secondary and Higher Education.

108. The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was the first multipurpose river valley project to be undertaken after Independence. It was set up in July 1948.

109. The National Power Training Institute (NPTI) is located at Faridabad.

110. The Central Power Research Institute (CPRI) has its headquarters located at Bangalore. Other units are located at Bhopal, Hyderabad, Nagpur, Ghaziabad, Thiruvanthapuram and Raichur.

111. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is the nodal agency to promote efficient use of energy and its conservation in all sectors of economy of India.

112. Coal is the main source of energy in India and account for about 67 per cent of India's commercial requirement.

113. The coal reserves of India, as on January 1, 2003 were 2,40,748 million tonnes.

114. The Botanical Survey of India and the Zoological Survey of India both have their headquarters in Kolkata.

115. The Forest Survey of India has its headquarters in Dehradun and has four regional offices at Bangalore, Kolkata, Nagpur and Shimla.

116. Biosphere reserves are multi-purpose protected areas to preserve the genetic diversity in representative ecosystem. 13 Biosphere reserves have been set up in India. These are: Nilgiri, Nanda Devi, Nokrek, Great Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Manas, Sundebans, Similipal, Dibru, Daikhowa, Dehong Deband, Pachmarhi, Kanchunjunga and Agasthyamalai. Out of these, Nilgiri, Sunderbans and Gulf of Mannar have been recognized on World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO.

117. India is one of the 12 mega-biodiversity countries of the world.

118. The forest cover of India constitutes 20.55 per cent of its geographical area. Of this, dense forest constitutes 12.68 per cent and open forest 7.87 per cent. The mangrove cover occupies 0.14 per cent of geographical area. The total tree/forest cover is estimated as 81,472 sq km or about 2.48 per cent of the country.

119. G.B. Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment and Development is located at Kosi-Katarmal, Almora, Uttaranchal.

120. The Environmental Information System (ENVIS) network brings out a quarterly journal, Paryavaran Abstracts, which contains information about environmental research in the Indian context.

121. The ENVIS has been designated as National Focal Point (NFP) and Regional Service Centre (RSC) for South Asia sub-regional countries by INFOTERRA (a global information system on environment) of UN Environment Programme (UNEP).

122. The Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) consists of nine main divisions, namely, (i) Economic; (ii) Banking; (iii) Insurance; (iv) Budget; (v) Foreign Trade and Investment; (vi) External Finance; (vii) Capital market; (viii) Fund Bank; and (ix) Currency and Coinage.

123. All revenues received, loans raised and money received in repayment of loans by the Union government form the Consolidated Fund of India. No money can be withdrawn from this Fund except under the authority of an Act of Parliament.

124. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

125. The first bank of limited liability, managed by Indians, was Oudh Commercial Bank. It was founded in 1881. Punjab National Bank was established in 1894.

126. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 on April 1, 1935 and nationalized on January 1,1949.

127. RBI is the sole authority for issue of currency notes in India, other than one-rupee coins and subsidiary coins and notes.

128. India ranks third in the world, after China and USA, in terms of production of coal.

129. The three important gold fields of India are: Kolar (Karnataka), Hutti in Raichur district (Karnataka) and Ramgiri in Anantapur district (Andhra Pradesh).

130. Mains reserves of Tungsten are located at Degana, Rajasthan.

131. The Mangampet deposits, occurring in Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh is the single largest deposit of Barytes in the world.

132. The main diamond-bearing areas in India are Panna belt in Madhya Pradesh, Munimadugu-Banganapalle conglomerate in Kurnool district, Wajrakarur Kimberlite pipe in Anantapur district and Krishna river basin in Andhra Pradesh.

133. Orissa is a major producer of Graphite in India.

134. Judges of the Supreme Court of India hold office until they attain the age of 65 years. Judges of the High Court hold office until they attain the age of 62 years.

135. The National Judicial Academy is located in Bhopal with its registered office in New Delhi.

136. V.V. Giri National Labour Institute, Noida, is an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Labour. It is engaged in research pertaining to labour and training of labour administrators, trade unions, public sector managers and other government functionaries concerned with labour.

137. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay.

138. All India Radio (AIR) operates on motto Bahujana Hitaya; Bahujana Sukhya (to promote the happiness and welfare of the masses through information, education and entertainment.

139. Cyan Darshan is the educational channel run by Doordarshan.

140. Press Trust of India (PTI) is India's largest news agency.

141. United News of India (UNI) became the first agency in India to launch a full-fledged Hindi wire service Univarta in 1982. In early 1990s, it launched the first-ever wire service in Urdu.

142. The Press Council of India has been established under the Act of Parliament for the purpose of preserving the freedom of the press, and of maintaining and improving the standards of newspapers and news agencies in India.

143. India has one of the largest road networks in the world, aggregating to about 3.3 million kilometres.

144. Golden Quadrilateral comprises of National Highways connecting the four metro cities.

145. Shipping Corporation of India Limited (SCI) is the biggest shipping line of India.

146. Indian Institute of Maritime Studies (IIMS) is located in Mumbai.

147. India has 12 major ports and about 184 other ports.

148. Mumbai, Nhava Sheva, Kandla, Mormugao, New Mangalore and Cochin are the major ports on west coast.

149. Kolkata/Haldia, Para dip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin are major ports on the east coast.

150. Command Area Development (CAD) Programme was launched in 1974-75 with main objective of improving the utilization of created irrigation potential and optimizing agriculture production and productivity from irrigated lands on sustainable bases.

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam. 2008: Public Administration

Civil Services Examination (Pre.) Exam. 2008: Public Administration

1. Which one of the following is not a/an approach/method/principle for organization development (OD)?
(A) Grid approach
(B) Survey feedback method
(C) Process consultation
(D) Peter principle

2. In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which variable is used along with the concern for people?
(A) Concern for external environment
(B) Concern for flexibility
(C) Concern for production
(D) Concern for managing change

3. Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?
(A) Charismatic
(B) Exploitive-authoritative
(C) Consultative
(D) Participative-group

4. Consider the following statements about variable budgets—
1. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when operations are repetitive.
2. Variable budgets are used most appropriately when there is only a small number of different expenses.
3. Variable budgets are often quite expensive to prepare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

5. Who is/are the author(s) of the well-known book : Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intragroup conflicts in an organization ?
(A) A. F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(B) K. Smith and D. Berg
(C) S. Ghoshal
(D) C. K. Prahlad



6. John Woodward is known for her contribution in which area ?
(A) Task technology approach to organizational design
(B) Environmental approach to organizational design
(C) Communication systems in an organization
(D) Feedback control in an organization

7. What did the Bhore Committee deal with ?
(A) Technical education in India
(B) Public health in India
(C) Development of airports in India
(D) Development of ports in India

8. Which of the following has/have been granted exemption from disclosure under the Right to Information Act, 2005 unless the competent authority is satisfied that larger public interest warrants the disclosure of the relevant information ?
1. Information in respect of intellectual property, the disclosure of which would harm the competitive position of a third party.
2. Information available to a person in his fiduciary relationship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

9. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office ?
(A) By an order of the State Chief Information Commissioner
(B) By the Supreme Court of India
(C) By an order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed
(D) In a manner similar to the removal from his office of a Judge of a High Court

10. Which one among the following conducts the “Census of Central Government Employees” and publishes the Report thereof ?
(A) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India
(B) Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of Labour, Government of India
(C) Planning Commission of India
(D) Registrar General of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The Central Staffing Scheme for the Central Government employees is operated by the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The Central Staffing Scheme pertains only to the officers from Group A Central Services only and it does not apply to officers from All India Services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions ?
(A) Gouldner
(B) Merton
(C) Barnard
(D) Simon

13. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers—
(A) Are essentially lazy
(B) Are motivated only by more pay
(C) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(D) Obey orders of immediate superiors

14. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labelled under ‘situational design theory’ ?
(A) Behavioural approach
(B) Neo-classical, approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Bureaucratic model

15. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization ?
(A) H. A. Simon
(B) J. D. Millet
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Chester I. Barnard

16. Which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven ?
1. Coercive power
2. Technical power
3. Referent power
4. Police power
5. Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 3 and 5

17. In ‘Management Grid Theory’ of Blake and Mouton when the ‘concern for people’ is the highest, what is the leadership pattern called ?
(A) ‘Impoverished’
(B) ‘People-centric’
(C) ‘Team Manager’
(D) ‘Country Club’

18. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs ?
1. Aggressiveness
2. Desire to attain fame
3. Independence
4. Social recognition

5. Self-confidence Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 3 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

19. Consider the following statements about Motivation—
1. It refers to human behaviour directed towards organizational goals.
2. It activates the organization members to achieve the desired goals.
3. It is concerned with identification of inefficiency factors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

20. Consider the following statements—
Ethics Reforms Act, 1989 passed by the U. S. Congress was an improvement over the Ethics in Government Act of 1978 in that—
1. It extended the provisions of the 1978 Act to the federal judiciary and legislature as well.
2. It created the Office of Personnel Management and Office of Government Ethics.
3. It led to the appointment of Special Prosecutor in the Department of Justice and a legal counsel in the Sentate.
4. It did none of the above except change the title of the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

21. “Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on theories and methodology of logical positivism”. These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) N. Umapathy
(B) Amilai Etzioni
(C) Deming
(D) Chris Argyris

22. Consider the following statements—
The essential difference between closed and open models of organization is differing perception about—
1. Human nature.
2. Organizational environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

23. The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following ?
(A) Customer driven government
(B) Entrepreneurial government
(C) Rationality in decision making
(D) Down-sizing of bureaucracy

24. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following ?
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 4 and 5

25. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features ?
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from ‘charisma’.
3. Person giving order has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

26. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept)
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Constructive conflict
(c) Scalar principle
(d) Grapevine
List-II (Contributor)
1. L. Urwick
2. F. Taylor
3. E. Mayo
4. M. Weber
5. M. Follet
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 5
(B) 1 5 4 3
(C) 2 5 1 3
(D) 1 3 4 5

27. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Book)
(a) Human Organization
(b) Theory of Social and Economic Organization
(c) New Patterns of Management
(d) The Human Problems of an Industrial Civilization
List-II (Author)
1. Rensis Likert
2. Elton Mayo
3. Henry Fayol
4. Max Weber
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3


28. According to classical theorists, how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an administrative organization characterized ?
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Legitimacy of rule, according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following ?
1. Tradition
2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict
4. Professional competence
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. Which one of the following is not a post behavioural tenet in the trinity of Post Modern Public Administration ?
(A) Critical Theory
(B) Neo Taylorism
(C) Rational Theory
(D) Public Choice Theory

31. Which of the following are the characteristics of New Public Management ?
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units within a public sector enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

32. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Public Administration studies have to be comparative to claim the status of a science
(b) Development administration is goal and action oriented
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but not sufficient
(d) Development is both process and purpose
List-II
1. Weidner
2. Hahn-Been Lee
3. R. Dahl
4. V. Ostrom
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid : Y. Dror would not so much flatten as a result of computers as spread into a bell shape
2. A change in : Vilfredo Pareto economic organization that makes one or more members of society better off without making anyone worse off
3. Metapolicy Policy for : John Pfiffner policy making procedures
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

34. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves—
(A) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches
(B) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches
(C) Adoption of legal-formal institutional approaches
(D) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches

35. Consider the following statements—
Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on—
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4

36. Consider the following statements—
According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements—
Public-private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to—
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology.
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

38. Consider the following statements—
In the course of Waldo-Simon debate on the theme of ‘Science’ of administration, Waldo questioned Simon’s ‘facts-values’ division, as—
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making a mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements—
1. Functional departmentation ensures that core activities of the enterprise are defended by the top managers.
2. Departmentation by territory places more responsibility at lower levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization—
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists.
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

41. The theory of cognitive dissonance proposed by Leon Festinger relates to any incompatibility between which of the following ?
(A) Behaviour and attitude of a person
(B) Skill-set and compensation of an employee
(C) The leadership styles of two managers
(D) Motivational needs of two employees

42. In the context of Frederick Herzberg’s motivation theory, which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Salary —Motivator
(B) Status —Hygiene factor
(C) Growth —Motivator
(D) Security —Hygiene factor

43. Which of the following are correctly matched ?
1. Situational leadership theory—Hersey-Blanchard
2. Path goal theory —Robert House
3. Leadership participation Model —The University of Michigan Studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

44. Consider the following statements—
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India under which the President of India may entrust, with the consent of the Government of a State, to that Government, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
2. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, only legislature of a State can by law alter the name of that State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities ?
1. Urban poverty alleviation.
2. Planning for economic and social development.
3. Regulation for tanneries.
4. Urban forestry.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46. Consider the following statements—
1. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 the Indian Legislature was made more representative and, for the first time, bicameral.
2. Before independence, while under all the previous Government of India Acts, the Government of India was unitary, the Government of India Act, 1935 prescribed a federation taking the Provinces and the Indian States as units.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of the Constitution of India ?
1. The Constitution received signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly on 26 November, 1949.
2. The provisions relating to citizenship were given immediate effect from 26 November, 1949.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

48. Consider the following statements—
1. The Constitution (Seventythird Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 16 Articles and a new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
2. The Constitution (Seventyfourth Amendment) Act, 1992 has added 18 Articles but no new Schedule in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the following statements—
All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India.
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State.
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance. Which of the statements given above is correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) None

50. Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill ?
1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.
2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
3. Alteration of any tax
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

51. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts ?
(A) Finance Commission of the concerned State
(B) Legislature of the State
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) District Collector

52. Who is vested with powers to make regulations as to conditions of service of Members and staff of the Union Public Service Commission ?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Minister of Law
(D) Chairman, Union Public Service Commission


53. What age is prescribed for a person to qualify for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) Not below 30 years on the date of appointment
(B) Not below 35 years on the date of appointment
(C) Not below 40 years on the date of appointment
(D) It is determined in such manner as Parliament may, by law, provide

54. Which of the following Union Ministries / Office / Commission in India publishes the Economic Survey ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Cabinet Secretariat

55. During the presentation of the Union Budget as the Finance Minister of India, who among the following announced setting up of Expenditure Reforms Commission ?
(A) P. Chidambaram
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Jaswant Singh
(D) Yashwant Sinha

Directions—(Q. 56-60) Each of the next Five items consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true

56. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public Administration.
Reason (R) : The Second Minnowbrook Conference followed the First Minnowbrook Conference after twenty years.

57. Assertion (A) : ‘Economic Man’ is the product of traditional theory of motivation.
Reason (R) : Material rewards make all organization members work harder for more material benefits.

58. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) : It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.

59. Assertion (A) : Lateral communication generally follows the chain of command rather than the work flow.
Reason (R) : Lateral communication provides a direct channel for coordination and problem solving.

60. Assertion (A) : Functional departmentation facilitates efficiency in the utilization of people.
Reason (R) : Functional departmentation does not adhere to the principle of occupational specialization.

61. Which one of the following is not a variable identified by Fred E. Fiedler that helps determine which leadership style will be effective ?
(A) Environmental pressures and workplace demands
(B) Leader-member relations
(C) Task structures
(D) Leader’s position power

62. Which of the following form a part of the terms of reference of the newly constituted Commission on Centre State Relations by the Government of India ?
1. Panchayati Raj institutions.
2. Communal violence.
3. An integrated domestic market.
4. Central Law Enforcement Agency.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

63. Who among the following was the Chairman of the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
(A) A. M. Ahmadi
(B) A. S. Anand
(C) M. N. Venkatachalaiah
(D) J. S. Verma

64. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000 ?
1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.
2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.
3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

65. The States’ Debt Consolidation and Relief Facility 2005-2010 was introduced by the Central Government on whose recommendations ?
(A) 11th Finance Commission
(B) 12th Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission

66. Which of the following issues will be dealt with by the 13th Finance Commission as per the terms of reference ?
1. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
2. Methods needed to augment the financial resources of the State Universities by funding from the University Grants Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission will cover a period of five years commencing from which date ?
(A) 1.4.2008
(B) 1.4.2009
(C) 1.4.2010
(D) 1.4.2011

68. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Commission/Post of the Union of India)
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India
List-II (Article of the Constitution of India)
1. 148
2. 280
3. 315
4. 324
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

69. Under which Union Ministry does the National River Conservation Directorate function ?
(A) The Ministry of Agriculture
(B) The Ministry of Water Resources
(C) The Ministry of Rural Development
(D) The Ministry of Environment and Forests

70. Consider the following statements about the Scheme for Strengthening of Revenue Administration and Updating of Land Records (SRA & ULR)—
1. The scheme is being implemented by the State Governments.
2. The scheme is financed by the Centre and States on 50 : 50 funds sharing basis.
3. Union Territories are being provided full central assistance. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

71. Consider the following statements—
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Who among the following further developed the Politics-Administration dichotomy—a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stages of the evolution of Public Administration ?
(A) H. Fayol
(B) L. Gulick
(C) L. Urwick
(D) F. Goodrow


73. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Talcott Parsons
(b) Frederick Herzberg
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) M. P. Follett
List-II
1. Creative Experience
2. Inside Bureaucracy
3. The Structure of Social Action
4. Work and the Nature of Man
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

74. The Second Minnowbrook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following ?
(A) Nomological deductivism
(B) Professionalisation of public administration
(C) Debureaucratisation of administration
(D) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’

75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. The Profession of Government—B. Chapman
2. Development Administration—La Palambora
3. Bureaucracy and Political Development—P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 only
(D) 3 only

76. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems, made possible by rising level of diffraction.
Who among the following gave the above definition ?
(A) Edward Weidner
(B) Ferrel Heady
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Montgomery and W. Siffin

77. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following ?
(A) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries
(B) A more meaningful role by public servants in development
(C) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(D) Induction of sophisticated technology even without an adequate infrastructure

78. Consider the following statements in respect of the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)—
1. RIDF-I was launched in the year 2000-2001.
2. Presently, only State Governments are eligible to borrow out of the RIDF on project basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

79. The ‘Line and Staff’ form of organization first originated in which one of the following ?
(A) Educational Administration
(B) Municipal Administration
(C) Military Administration
(D) Public Administration

80. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor
(b) Chester I. Barnard
(c) Chris Argyris and E. W. Bakke
(d) Kurt Lewin
List-II
1. Field Force Model
2. Fusion Process Theory
3. Zone of indifference
4. Pig iron experiment
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

81. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following ?
1. Differential piecework plan.
2. Separation of planning and execution.
3. Time study.
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3 only

82. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol ?
(A) Relating to production and adaptation
(B) Relating to buying and selling
(C) Relating to liaison with the governments
(D) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

84. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization ?
(A) Effective use of specialized facilities
(B) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(C) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(D) Effective top-management control

85. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following constituent steps in organizing process of a public service unit ?
1. Grouping various activities after factoring in available human and material resources.
2. Delegating to each group head the necessary authority.
3. Identifying and classifying the various activities.
4. Tying the group together after factoring in authority relationships.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 4, 2 and 1

86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Subject)
(a) Nonprogrammed decisions
(b) Programmed decisions
(c) Emphasis on data storage
(d) Emphasis on data manipulation
List-II (Related to)
1. Lower-level managers
2. Upper-level managers
3. Decision support system
4. Management Information System
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

87. Preference theory or utility theory is employed for which one of the following functions in an organization ?
(A) Job design
(B) Work measurement
(C) Decision under uncertainty
(D) Training program for new recruits

88. Consider the following statements in context of the civil service in the U. K.—
The English Committee (technically a part of the House of Commons Expenditure Committee) stressed in particular the need for—
1. A complete overhaul of administrative training.
2. More professionalism.
3. Less control over Whitehall by ministers and by Parliament. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?
Feature Type of Budget
1. Allows no proper : Incremental budget
incentive for managers to
develop innovative ideas

2. Increases staff motivation : Zero-based budget

3. The R & D department : Zero-based budget
is threatened whereas
production department
benefits

4. The impact of change : Incremental budget
can be seen quickly

Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

90. Which one of the following enabled the French Civil Service to emerge as a national institution ?
(A) French Revolution of 1789
(B) Introduction of merit principle of recruitment in 1847
(C) The Civil Service Act of 1946
(D) Introduction of General Grid System in 1948

91. “We are no longer confronted with several Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(A) Frederick Taylor
(B) L. Urwick
(C) Henri Fayol
(D) Frank Goodnow

92. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors ?
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

93. Participative style of leadership became popular during and after the era of which one of the following ?
(A) Systems theory
(B) Behavioural theory
(C) Human Relations theory
(D) Scientific Management theory

94. What is the threefold classification of authority as given by A. Etzioni ?
(A) Programme, Organizational and Normative
(B) Budgetary, Personnel and Utilitarian
(C) Coercive, Normative and Utilitarian
(D) Coercive, Normative and Organizational

95. Who among the following are authors of the well-known work—Administrative Behaviour : A Study of Decision-Making Processes in Administrative Organization ?
(A) Kenneth Thompson and Chester I. Barnard
(B) H. A. Simon and Chester I. Barnard
(C) F. Herzberg and A. Maslow
(D) A. Maslow and Chester I.Barnard

96. The Department of Land Resources is a part of which one of the Union Ministries ?
(A) Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
(B) Ministry of Rural Development
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Environment and Forests

97. What is/are the chief barrier(s) to interpersonal communication ?
1. Cultural
2. Perceptual
3. Ideological
4. Technological
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

98. Why has the idea of organizational leadership been largely avoided in mainstream organization theory in social-psychological tradition ?
1. The idea goes against the open model.
2. It is against the closed model.
3. It ascribes special characteristics to some members in an organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 only

99. In the U. K. the Citizen and the Administration : Redress of Grievances was published by which Report ?
(A) Whyatt Report
(B) Atkinson Report
(C) William Report
(D) Northcote-Trevelyan Report

100. Effective public participation in development projects majorly needs which of the following ?
1. Occasional consultation
2. Active association with the whole project cycle
3. Administrative initiative more than people’s initiative
4. Gender sensitivity
5. Poverty sensitivity
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 4 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 4 and 5

101. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Zone of acceptance
(c) Self-actualization
(d) Mixed scanning
List-II
1. H. Simon
2. Etzioni
3. Chester Barnard
4. A. Maslow
5. F. Herzberg
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 4 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 5
(C) 5 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 5

102. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘state mystifying’ institution ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse-Tung
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. I. Lenin

103. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”.
This statement is credited to whom among the following ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) F. A. Nigro
(C) O. Tead
(D) C. Merriam

104. Consider the following statements about budget—
1. Budget is a tool of legislative control over administration.
2. Budget is a tool of judicial control over administration.
3. Budget is a comprehensive plan document.
4. Budget is a tool of public control over public finance.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

105. The hallmark of French public administration has been its predilection for precision and technical solutions to problems. This characteristic feature is generally attributed to which of the following ?
1. Lack of natural consensus a distinct cultural trait.
2. A constant search for technical solution to governance problem.
3. Rejecting the notion that problems can be solved compromise.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Davis Committee
(b) Masterman Committee
(c) Second Hoover Committee
(d) Franks Committee
List-II
1. Political activities of Civil Servants
2. Senior Executive Service
3. Official Secrets Act
4. Method-II
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3


107. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is fully owned by—
(A) The Government of India only
(B) The Government of India
and the Reserve Bank of India
(C) The Reserve Bank of India only
(D) The Government of India and the Life Insurance Corporation of India

108. The Code of Ethics for public services developed by the American Society for Public Administration emphasizes which of the following ?
1. Respect for public interest, Constitution and laws.
2. Personal integrity, professionalism and promotion of ethical organizations.
3. High salaries, quick promotions and uniform treatment for all public servants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

109. Who among the following established the Executive Office of the President of the U.S.A. ?
(A) F. Roosevelt
(B) A. Jackson
(C) T. Jefferson
(D) G. Washington

110. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List I (Body/Feature)
(a) National Personnel Authority
(b) Constitution contains only ‘Seven Articles’
(c) Doctrine of Rule of Law
(d) Commune—A unit of local self-government
List II (Country)
1. United States of America
2. France
3. U. K.
4. Japan
Codes :
(a) '(b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

111. Consider the following statements—
Informal organizations/groups within formal ones come into being because—
1. They are created by the top management in an organization.
2. They facilitate communication within different units/levels of an organization.
3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

112. Consider the following statements—
In the ambiguous and uncertainty- ridden decision world, formal rationalist decision theories are substituted by the sense-making perspective under which—
1. Preferences may be easy to identify.
2. Choices may be contradictory and unclear.
3. Decision makers may have to construct and shape preferences.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 1 and 3 only

113. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations ?
(A) Philip Selznick
(B) H. A. Simon
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Peter Drucker

114. Herbert Simon identified four basic motivations of subordinates to accept the will of a superior. Which one of the following is not one of them ?
(A) Rewards and sanctions
(B) Social disapproval
(C) Legitimacy
(D) Subordinate’s confidence in superior’s ability

115. In explaining administrative decision-making, Simon’s decision- theory focussed on which one of the following ?
(A) The single best choice made by the decision-maker
(B) The limits of information availability in the organization
(C) The constraints on computational abilities of the administrator
(D) Bounded rationality and satisficing

116. While dealing with superiorsubordinate communication, the theory of communication in public administration tends to neglect which one of the following ?
(A) Emphasis on task directives
(B) Communication on organizational policy and procedures
(C) Communication on performance feedback from subordinates
(D) Superior’s managerial capacity

117. The behavioural approach led to administrative research on which of the following ?
1. Motivation studies.
2. Decision making studies.
3. Organizational structures.
4. Behaviour of individuals in the organization.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

118. Consider the following statements—
According to Barnard, authority is accepted in an organization only when—
1. The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.
2. The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

119. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors” ?
(A) M. Crozier
(B) Frank Gilbreth
(C) Reinhard Bendix
(D) M. L. Cooke

120. What was/were the perspective(s) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy ?
1. Economic perspective
2. Political perspective
3. Sociological perspective
4. Cultural perspective
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 4 only
(D) 3 only


Answers

 1. (D)         2. (C)      3. (A)      4. (D)         5. (A)
 6. (A)         7. (B)      8. (C)         9. (C)        10. (B)
11. (D)     12. (A)    13. (C)     14. (D)     15. (D)
16. (D)     17. (D)     18. (B)     19. (A)     20. (D)
21. (A)     22. (B)    23. (B)     24. (D)     25. (B)
26. (C)    27. (A)     28. (B)     29. (A)     30. (C)
31. (A)    32. (C)     33. (A)     34. (A)     35. (C)
36. (C)     37. (C)     38. (A)     39. (C)     40. (C)
41. (A)     42. (A)     43. (A)     44. (D)     45. (D)
46. (C)     47. (C)     48. (A)    49. (B)     50. (D)
51. (B)     52. (A)    53. (D)     54. (A)     55. (B)
56. (D)     57. (C)     58. (A)     59. (D)     60. (C)
61. (A)     62. (D)     63. (C)     64. (D)     65. (B)
66. (A)     67. (C)     68. (B)     69. (D)     70. (D)
71. (A)    72. (D)     73. (D)     74. (D)     75. (C)
76. (C)     77. (D)     78. (B)     79. (C)     80. (C)
81. (C)     82. (C)    83. (D)     84. (B)     85. (B)
86. (D)     87. (C)     88. (D)     89. (A)     90. (C)
91. (C)     92. (D)     93. (C)     94. (C)    95. (B)
96. (B)     97. (C)     98. (C)     99. (A)     100. (B)
101. (C)      102. (C)        103. (C)        104. (A)         105. (C)
106. (A)      107. (B)        108. (A)        109. (A)          110. (B)
111. (C)      112. (D)        113. (A)        114. (B)          115. (D)
116. (C)      117. (D)        118. (B)        119. (A)          120. (D)